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Let be an infinite sequence. Is it true that
Source: erdosproblems.com/480
An accepted solution exists. The statement is true.
PROVED (LEAN), the site's label (page last edited 28 December 2025), credited to Chung and Graham [ChGr84]; the accepted claim page is Chung and Graham 1981. Theorem 1 of the chapter (Finite and Infinite Sets, Colloq. Math. Soc. János Bolyai 37, North-Holland 1984; p. 182; no file held) gives, for every sequence in , , and , so the answer is yes with a smaller constant; their Theorem 2 shows is best possible. The same theorems were announced without proof in [ChGr81] (Proc. Natl. Acad. Sci. USA 78 (1981), 4001; no file held), the authors' own first publication. The claim is accepted on the refereed announcement, which carries no proof, and on the curator's credit; the chapter is a proceedings chapter not shown to be refereed, and the 1980 monograph's added-in-proof note reports the theorem too. The "(Lean)" suffix is a catalog label explained under Formalization below; the Lean file is a formalization link on the claim page and gives no evidence here.