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Prove that for almost all , but that for infinitely many , where is Euler's totient function.
Source: erdosproblems.com/1064
An accepted solution exists. The statement is true.
Proved (the site's label). The answer to both parts is yes, and
the page lists the two parts as almost_all and infinitely_often. Luca and
Pomerance [LuPo02] prove the first inequality on a set of density one, by a
margin of any order below , refereed in Colloquium Mathematicum and
credited by the site, which the corpus accepts on the claim page
Luca
and Pomerance 2002 as settling the first part. The second inequality was
proved by Grytczuk, Luca and Wójtowicz [GLW01], with a gap growing like
along explicit families; they also gave the first inequality a lower density
of at least . The site credits the infinitude to that paper, and the
corpus accepts it on
Grytczuk,
Luca and Wójtowicz 2001 as settling the second part. Luca and Pomerance
state the second inequality in the stronger form
for every as a remark without proof, and for the infinite families they
cite [GLW01].