Problem 422

../

---

Statement. Let $f(1)=f(2)=1$ and for $n>2$

$$f(n) = f(n-f(n-1))+f(n-f(n-2)).$$

Does $f(n)$ miss infinitely many integers? What is its behaviour?

Status. Open.

Source. erdosproblems.com/422, accessed 2026-09-04. Cite as: T. F. Bloom, Erdős Problem #422, https://www.erdosproblems.com/422.

Formalization. Statement in formal-conjectures.

Progress

Not yet compiled.

Known Results

Not yet compiled.